Eztainutlacatl

A great advantage of eBook model is, sometimes, your research topics and personal studies end up as an eBook.
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In a personal mail I received in 2008, Michael Witzel noted,
While we say that the Harappan (Indus) Civilization did not have writing (and thus was functionally “illiterate”) its people were anything but “illiterate” in the sense of uncivilized. The myths depicted on their tiny tablets indicate a complex religion and its oral literature.
NB: It is not a great shame if a civilization does not have a script: The Incas, Aztecs-Toltecs-Olmecs did not have one, neither the civilizations close to the Indus: Those of Jiroft, Mundigak, and the BMAC (Bactria-Margiana Archeological Complex, 2400-1600 BCE).
Script is an ingredient of the early great civilizations, but not a necessary one.

This is an insincere argument. Incas had quipu which acted as a script. Aztecs and Olmecs used pictographic scripts while it is possible that Toltecs, who existed only for two centuries didn't evolve into a full state with a working bureaucracy. On the other hand, it is fully established that Jiroft, Mundigak and BMAC are periphery for Indus - if Indus didn't use script according to Witzel, how can it's periphery be? Further more, can one use absence of script in periphery be used as a basis to argue core didn't have a script? More even so, fully knowing they are minor entities as compared to Indus Valley, what exactly is the use case for a script for those entities in an era where civilized life itself is hard to find? Further more, it is an interesting intellectual exercise as to how a civilization which covered more than a million sq km, and survived for millennia maintained the commonality and ran an empire without a script? Even more so, when Elam and Sumer had script, what explains the fact that Indus Valley rejected one of the most useful inventions of mankind?

India should start a navy base in Nicosia or Crete.
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Is the problem here a Brahmin becoming an OBC or a Hindu converting?
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And they say Karma is a...
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